Elizabethan bonnet

**Chas** · 17th August 09, 04:11 AM

Originally Posted by Phil

Exactly. I presume it would be less confusing to say 16th century or define it more closely as early, mid or late 16th century. The Stuarts were on the throne in Scotland at that time but I have never heard their reign used to define the period.

Hi Phil,

I think it is quite appropriate that we (non-Scots) get reminded from time to time that other people have a different take on history and culture. It would only be polite, to my mind, to use the words or language of a country to describe events of that country.

Regards

Chas

**Jock Scot** · 17th August 09, 04:12 AM

The Scots do not have an Elizabethan period. Other than the one we are in now.

**Chas** · 17th August 09, 04:42 AM

Originally Posted by Chas

So what in Scotland is the universally accepted phrase or expression for the period of time from 7 September 1533 – 24 March 1603? That is to say, what is in the curriculum that is taught in Scottish schools?Regards
Chas

Originally Posted by Jock Scot

The Scots do not have an Elizabethan period. Other than the one we are in now.

OK. I am more than willing to accept that. But then, my original question still stands. If the Scots don't call that time period the (first) Elizabethan era, what do they call it? I have no wish to be argumentative; if there is another expression then it should, quite rightly, be used.

Regards

Chas

**Jock Scot** · 17th August 09, 04:52 AM

Originally Posted by Chas

OK. I am more than willing to accept that. But then, my original question still stands. If the Scots don't call that time period the (first) Elizabethan era, what do they call it? I have no wish to be argumentative; if there is another expression then it should, quite rightly, be used.

Regards

Chas

Fair comment. I would use early, mid, or, late 16th Century. Or, a combination of such.

**Bruce Scott** · 21st August 09, 04:28 PM

Originally Posted by Jock Scot

The Scots do not have an Elizabethan period. Other than the one we are in now.

Indeed. And in Scotland she should be referred to as Elizabeth I.

**The Guy in the Kilt at UC** · 24th August 09, 10:36 AM

This confuses my American brain.

**dowofbuchanan** · 30th August 09, 01:10 PM

and its all because the nobles decided to hanover the crown to a dutch pretender.... haha i made a bad pun

**macwilkin** · 30th August 09, 01:21 PM

Originally Posted by dowofbuchanan

and its all because the nobles decided to hanover the crown to a dutch pretender.... haha i made a bad pun

Except William wasn't from the house of Hanover...

**MacMillan of Rathdown** · 30th August 09, 08:13 PM

Originally Posted by Chas

OK. I am more than willing to accept that. But then, my original question still stands. If the Scots don't call that time period the (first) Elizabethan era, what do they call it? I have no wish to be argumentative; if there is another expression then it should, quite rightly, be used.

Regards

Chas

In terms of placing Scottish architecture in its historical context 1500-1542 is usually referred to as the "Early Scottish Renaissance" while the period 1542-1568 is the "Marian Period (or Era)". Beginning in 1568 we are in the "Jacobean Era".

Mind you, it's probably less confusing to simply say "Scotland, in the 16th century..." than to attach what seem to be purely academic titles to broad periods of Scottish history.