Quote Originally Posted by Joseph McMillan View Post
By rights, he should determine legitimacy according to the laws of the place and time where they lived. Under Scots law, children have always been legitimated by the subsequent marriage of the parents.
I suspected as much. I suppose, then, I should get used to the idea of a bordure compony ... I'm not ashamed of my g-grandfather (I never knew him, and my Dad barely remembers him), but I am of his behavior - long story short, he was a cad. My gf tried to obfuscate the facts, but with a little digging and some simple math, it came out (just a few years ago, but well after he passed).

I suppose I (or a lawyer) will have to research the case law of the time for the jurisdiction(s) in question (US, KY, IL) to determine his legitimacy. There was/is no question of paternity, just whether or not his birth was made legitimate by the subsequent marriage of his parents at a later date.

Thanks for the responses, Cygnus & Joseph!